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A proper interpretation of the overall purpose of the book of Acts is essential to a correct understanding of the Bible as a whole. Because of this, it has long been a battleground for Bible expositors of all theological persuasions. Although there have been many theories advanced that attempt to explain its overall purpose, this paper focuses on the Acts 28 position as presented in the paper entitled “The Dispensational Frontier” by Charles H. Welch. This view states that Israel was set aside after the apostle Paul's pronouncement against them in Acts 28:28 and immediately following that Paul received the revelation of the Mystery that he writes about in the books of Ephesians and Colossians. Therefore, according to this view, Paul was preaching the truths concerning this newly revealed Mystery during the final 2 years of the book of Acts. Although I believe Paul received the revelation of the Mystery, something previously hidden in God, sometime after the setting aside of Israel, I don't agree that he knew about it during the final 2 years of the book of Acts. In fact, the purpose of this paper is to show, in brief, from the very words of the book of Acts itself that there is no mention or hint of the Mystery in any way, shape, or form anywhere within its pages! What is the overall purpose of the book of Acts? From beginning to end, the book of Acts is concerned with the restoration of the nation of Israel and the establishment of the kingdom of God, their long prophesied earthly hope. Where do we get our first glimpse of this? God gives us the answer to this question within the first few verses of the book where we read: The former treatise have I made, O Theophilus, of all that Jesus began both to do and teach, until the day in which he was taken up, after that he through the Holy Ghost had given commandments unto the apostles whom he had chosen: to whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God (Acts 1:1-3) So, based on the above passage, what was the focus of Christ's teaching to His apostles after He rose from the dead? The end of Acts 1:3 is clear, it was “things pertaining to the kingdom of God”. The following list contains all of the verses in the book of Acts that contain the phrase της βασιλειας του θεου which is the underlying Greek for the term translated “the kingdom of God”:
It's interesting to note this term, “the kingdom of God”, is used exactly 7 times within the book of Acts, the number that implies completion or fulfillment. If we include all of the verses in the book of Acts that use the Greek word βασιλεια which is translated “kingdom” throughout, Acts 1:6 must be added to our list, a verse that is not without significance: When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel? After the 40 days of Christ's teaching, the apostles understood exactly what He was talking about – the restoration of Israel through the establishment of their long awaited, prophesied kingdom and this is exactly what Christ “began both to do and teach (Acts 1:1) in His ministry to Israel as recorded in the Gospel accounts with the following verse as an example: And he said unto them, I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also: for therefore am I sent. (Luke 4:43) So what's going on in the book of Acts based on what we have seen so far? The continuation of Christ's ministry to Israel to bring to fulfillment the establishment of the kingdom of God! One of the points presented as proof for the Acts 28 position is the perceived distinction in meaning between the usage of the term “the kingdom of God” first in Acts 28:23 and then later in Acts 28:31. In other words, a basis for this view is the belief that a term that is used consistently throughout the book of Acts somehow changes its meaning the last time it's used. How can this be justified? It has been suggested that the title “Lord Jesus Christ” used in Acts 28:31 shows that Paul is now referring to a new aspect of Christ implying that the Mystery of Ephesians and Colossians had been revealed to him. Is this really supported by the Bible? Let's “search and see” . . . The title “Lord Jesus Christ” in Acts 28:31 is a translation of κυριου ιησου χριστου, a combination of the κύριος [#2962] translated “Lord”,Ἰησοῦς [#2424] translated “Jesus”, and Χριστός [#5547] translated “Christ”. This exact title only occurs in the book of Acts in the following 6 verses: Forasmuch then as God gave them the like gift as he did unto us, who believed on the Lord Jesus Christ; what was I, that I could withstand God? (Acts 11:17) But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they. (Acts 15:11) Men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ. (Acts 15:26) And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house. (Acts 16:31) Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ. (Acts 20:21) Preaching the kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ, with all confidence, no man forbidding him. (Acts 28:31) The first thing to note is the title “Lord Jesus Christ” is first used by Peter in Acts 11:17 and this is in reference to the preaching of the gospel to the Gentiles by him and their subsequent belief and salvation. This noteworthy event is recounted at the so-called Jerusalem council in Acts 15:11 and later confirmed by James to be something that was in accordance with prophecy – see Acts 15:13-18. In fact, every occurrence of this title is associated in some way or another with the salvation of God going to the Gentiles. It's also interesting that this title is used 6 times in the book of Acts, a number associated with failure and a required mystery that provides the remedy. What mystery could this be in reference to? One of the mysteries that was central to Paul's ministry throughout the book of Acts is the mystery of the “olive tree” found in Romans 11:25 with its associated “fullness of the Gentiles”. Isn't that interesting? Therefore, instead of the reference to the title “Lord Jesus Christ” in Acts 28:31 suggesting the beginning of a new ministry, it is actually the culmination of a ministry that started in Acts 10 with Peter and was brought to completion by Paul starting in Acts 13 and continuing until the end of the Acts period. Another important term found in Acts 28:23-31 is το σωτηριον του θεου translated “the salvation of God”. What's most interesting is the fact that other than Acts 28:28, it is only found in one other place in the New Testament. Here's the passage where it is located: Now in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, Pontius Pilate being governor of Judaea, and Herod being tetrarch of Galilee, and his brother Philip tetrarch of Ituraea and of the region of Trachonitis, and Lysanias the tetrarch of Abilene, Annas and Caiaphas being the high priests, the word of God came unto John the son of Zacharias in the wilderness. And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins; as it is written in the book of the words of Esaias the prophet, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. Every valley shall be filled, and every mountain and hill shall be brought low; and the crooked shall be made straight, and the rough ways shall be made smooth; and all flesh shall see the salvation of God. (Luke 3:1-6) A few points to note in regards to this passage: 1. The term under discussion is embedded within a quotation from the book of Isaiah the prophet, specifically Isaiah 40:3-5. 2. The quotation is referring to the baptism ministry of John the Baptist which has as its goal the “remission of sins”. 3. The context of the quotation is twofold, a particular people called “My people” in Isaiah 40:1 which is obviously Israel and the city of Jerusalem in Isaiah 40:2. 4. Although Israel and their city Jerusalem is the primary focus of this prophecy, it's important to recognize that “all flesh” are also included. 5. Like Acts 28:31, this passage comes from the same human author, Luke. What “salvation” could possibly be in view here? Undoubtedly, for both Isaiah and John the Baptist it must be the earthly millennial hope which will be realized at the establishment of the kingdom of God. In addition, there is only one other verse in the books of Matthew-Acts that contains σωτήριον [#4992] translated 'salvation' and once again it is Luke who uses it. We find the only other occurrence in Luke 2:30 speaking of Christ as 'a light to lighten the Gentiles and the glory of Thy people Israel (Luke 2:32). Again, this is associated with Gentiles! This helps confirm that point #4 above is most likely referring not to all of Israel alone but also to all Gentiles as well. Therefore, why should we suppose that when Paul states that “the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles” (Acts 28:28) that something different from what has been going on throughout the book of Acts has started? In fact, quite to the contrary, what occurs in Acts 28:25-28 is following a pattern that actually starts with Paul's separation to the work God had called him (Acts 13:2) which was to open “the door of faith unto the Gentiles” (Acts 14:27). In Acts 13, what happens one sabbath following Paul's initial preaching of the gospel to both Jews and Gentiles in Antioch of Pisidia? Here's the account: But when the Jews saw the multitudes, they were filled with envy, and spake against those things which were spoken by Paul, contradicting and blaspheming. Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth. And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed. (Acts 13:45-48) It's not without significance to note that earlier in Acts 13:6-12 in Paphos, the first event recorded about Paul's ministry to the Gentiles was a miracle involving the blinding of a hindering Jew and the salvation of a believing Gentile. Isn't that a picture of what we see in the above account and doesn't this tie in nicely with the mystery of the “olive tree” in Rom. 11:25? Earlier in Acts 13:41, at the end of his message, Paul quotes the following Old Testament passage as a warning to the Jews he had spoken to: Behold ye among the heathen, and regard, and wonder marvellously: for I will work a work in your days, which ye will not believe, though it be told you. (Habakkuk 1:5) So, in response to unbelieving Jews who were required to hear God's word first, having been warned of the consequences of unbelief, Paul turns to the Gentiles in fulfillment of another Old Testament prophecy: And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth. (Isaiah 49:6) Later in Acts 18:5-6, we see the same pattern once again applied by Paul. This time Paul alludes to the following passage from the prophet Ezekiel in the Old Testament: Son of man, I have made thee a watchman unto the house of Israel: therefore hear the word at my mouth, and give them warning from me. When I say unto the wicked, Thou shalt surely die; and thou givest him not warning, nor speakest to warn the wicked from his wicked way, to save his life; the same wicked man shall die in his iniquity; but his blood will I require at thine hand. Yet if thou warn the wicked, and he turn not from his wickedness, nor from his wicked way, he shall die in his iniquity; but thou hast delivered thy soul. Again, When a righteous man doth turn from his righteousness, and commit iniquity, and I lay a stumblingblock before him, he shall die: because thou hast not given him warning, he shall die in his sin, and his righteousness which he hath done shall not be remembered; but his blood will I require at thine hand. Nevertheless if thou warn the righteous man, that the righteous sin not, and he doth not sin, he shall surely live, because he is warned; also thou hast delivered thy soul. (Ezekiel 3:17-21) Notice that once again, a warning is given to Israel of impending danger. Here Paul is acting in the role of the watchman. However, since he has provided proper warning to the unbelieving Jews he is clean. But why does Paul once again proclaim “from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles” here in Acts 18:6? It's clear that after stating this to the Jews in Antioch of Pisidia he still proclaimed Christ to the Jews afterwards. Another example of this is found when he goes to Thessalonica: Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: and Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ. (Acts 17:1-3) So why the repetition? Paul is now Achaia, a territory further west from Antioch of Pisidia which is Galatia. So what's really different in Acts 28:23-28? The pattern found in both Acts 13 and 18 is once again repeated. Now Paul is even further west than Achaia, he is in Rome. However, there is one important difference between Paul's ministry to the Jews at Rome and his previous ministry to the Jews in both Antioch of Pisidia and Achaia. This time instead of a warning, Paul is pronouncing judgment on Israel and as a result, Israel is in danger of being set aside! However, does the potential of Israel being setting aside require the immediate setting aside of their hope particularly because at that time the mystery of the “olive tree” is in play and the “fullness of the Gentiles” must come in before the ultimate salvation of Israel can occur as we read in Rom. 11:25-26? In addition, is it necessary to conclude that once the sentence is pronounced, the execution of that sentence must be immediately carried out? Or carried out at all if they yet repent? Another note is the final word translated "no man forbidding him". Why? Potentially because the Jews are now set aside which had been the ones who were withstanding Paul's ministry to the Gentiles, see 1 Thess. 2:14-16 where we read "forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they might be saved, to fill up their sins always, for the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost". Jeff Brown
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